CCNA Discovery 2 Module 4 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
• 128
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 512
• 1024
Jawaban :
• 256

2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 11110010
• 11011011
• 11110110
• 11100111
• 11100101
• 11101110
Jawaban
• 11100111


3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512
Jawaban :
• 254

4. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
• Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
• A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
• Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
• Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.
Jawaban :
• Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.

5. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E
Jawaban :
• Class C

6. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
• Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
• Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
• Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
• Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.
Jawaban :
• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.

7. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
• It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
• The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
• Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
• Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
• Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.
• Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.
Jawaban :
• The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
• Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.

8. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
• 6
• 14
• 30
• 62
Jawaban :
• 30

9. hat is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
• 192.168.0.0
• 192.168.0.255
• 192.168.32.0
• 192.168.32.254
• 192.168.32.255
Jawaban :
• 192.168.32.255

10. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
Jawaban :
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

11. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
• 64
• 96
• 128
• 192
• 256
• 512
Jawaban :
• 128

12. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
• 127 to 191
• 127 to 192
• 128 to 191
• 128 to 192
Jawaban :
• 128 to 191

13. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E
Jawaban
• Class A

14. refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
• 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
• 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128
Jawaban :
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94

15. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
• 2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
• 2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
• 2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
• 2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13
Jawaban :
• 2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13

16. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
• to preserve registered public IP addresses
• to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
• to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
• to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
• to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
• to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers
Jawaban :
• to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet

17. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
• The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.
Jawaban :
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.

18. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
• 255 and below
• 1024 and below
• 1025 and above
• 64,000 and above
Jawaban :
• 1025 and above

19. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
• inside global
• outside local
• outside global
• private IP address
Jawaban ;
• inside global

20. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)
• improved security
• improved router performance
• decreased processor load
• improved scalability
• universal application compatibility
• sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts
Jawaban :
• improved security
• improved scalability
• sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 3

1. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)
• faster communication speeds
• improved physical security
• more resistant to hacker attempts
• centralized cable management
• less electrical usage

2. Which three issues should be noted on the technician's site survey report? (Choose three.)
• unlabeled cables
• only two power outlets per wall in each room
• poor physical security of network devices
• horizontal cabling runs under 100 meters
• lack of UPS for critical devices
• two users sharing the same computer

3. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose two.)
• serial cable
• rollover cable
• straight-through cable
• crossover cable
• patch cable
• console cable

4. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while performing the site survey?
• any obsolete office equipment being stored
• all product keys for site license software
• any planned growth anticipated in the near future
• the memory requirements for installed application software

5.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks?
• hub
• router
• switch
• access point

6. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s". What is meant by this?
• A down time of .00001% is unacceptable.
• A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.
• Five percent of all network expense covers 99% of user requirements.
• The most critical time for network availability is from 9:00 to 5:00 p.m. five days a week.
• The best time to do maintenance on a network is from 5:00 p.m. to 9:00 a.m. five days a week.

7. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)
• the location of cables, computers, and other peripherals
• the path that the data takes through a network
• the wireless signal coverage area
• the wiring closet and access point locations
• the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
• the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering

8. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?
• repeater
• hub
• router
• switch

9. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design?
• to inform the customer of how much time the upgrade will take
• to discuss the implementation schedule for the new equipment
• to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion
• to layout the new network design and discuss possible equipment upgrades and replacements

10. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit growing network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement?
• a networking device with ports that can be activated and deactivated
• a networking device with a modular physical configuration
• a networking device with the ability to be turned off remotely
• a networking device with a cost per port that is as high as possible

11. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?
• scalability
• manageability
• compatibility
• reliability

12. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?
• An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.
• ISRs use a PC operating system for routing traffic, thus simplifying configuration and management.
• An ISR is immune to security attacks by hackers and so replaces all other network security measures.
• ISRs make routing decisions at OSI Layer 7, thus providing more intelligence to the network than do other routers.

13. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)
• user workstations
• switches and routers
• fax machines
• network equipment racks
• the point of presence
• copier

14. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)
• does not require leasing costs for service
• can guarantee up to 99.999% availability
• eliminates the need for data backup
• increases availability of help desk services
• does not require a Service Level Agreement

15. A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.)
• Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.
• Phase 2 includes creating an analysis report.
• Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for unexpected events.
• Phase 4 is where prototypes are created and tested.
• Phase 5 includes identifying and addressing any weaknesses in the design.

16. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.)
• configure the servers and routers prior to delivery
• upgrade the network operating system and all client operating systems
• investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
• document the final design for approval by the customer
• perform a site survey to document the existing network structure

17. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider?
• backbone area
• point of presence
• network distribution facility
• intermediate distribution frame

18.
to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device?
• A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight
• A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console
• A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight

19. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.)
• Customer IT training costs will increase to enable operation of the new equipment.
• The cost of hardware repairs and support will become the responsibility of the customer.
• Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
• Staffing costs will increase because the customer will need to hire additional IT staff to complete the upgrade.
• The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the equipment upfront.

20. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?
• STP
• UTP
• coaxial
• fiber optic

21. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room?
• MDF
• POP
• IDF
• IXP

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1initiating the network communication process
segmenting and identifying data for reassembly at the destination

2.formats and encodes data for transmission
3.loose network cable
4.ping
ipconfig
Traceroute
5.destination IP address
6.bits, frames, packets, segments
7.network optimization,customer retention
8.alking to the customer on the telephone,using various web tools,with remote desktop sharing applications
9.Is the NIC link light blinking?,Is the Category 5 cable properly connected to the network slot on the PC?,Can you access your e-mail account?
10.Can you access othttp://www.blogger.com/post-create.g?blogID=2860768041998932284her web sites?
11.When the problem is solved, all information is recorded on the trouble ticket for future reference.
12.converting data to bits,signal generation
13.What is your subnet mask?,What is your IP address?,Can you ping the default gateway?
14.A firewall filtering traffic addressed to TCP port 25 on an email server.
15.opening a trouble ticket,adhering to a problem-solving strategy
16.Level 3
17.define the problem
18.Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?
19.failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses
20.application, presentation, session